42 And the time cometh that he shall manifest himself unto all nations, both unto the Jews and also unto the Gentiles; and after he has manifested himself unto the Jews and also unto the Gentiles, then he shall manifest himself unto the Gentiles and also unto the Jews, and the last shall be first, and the first shall be last.
I think I understand the first shall be last and the last shall be first, but what I’m curious about is when it talks about Christ manifesting Himself. It says first to the Jews, then to the Gentiles; after that it will be first to the Gentiles, then to the Jews. I think the first manifestation of Christ (as Christ) was during His mortal ministry. I don’t know about the first manifestation to the Gentiles, but I think the next manifestation Gentiles was at the restoration of the Church in the latter days, and the manifestation to the Jews is yet to happen. So if these were personal manifestations, when was the first manifestation to the Gentiles?
Another way to take this is the first manifestation of the Lord to the Jews was as Jehovah in the Old Testament. Then He was manifest to the Gentiles by the Jews during the New Testament. In the latter days, He first manifested Himself to the Gentiles (Joseph Smith being first), then to the Jews by the Gentiles. That would be just the kind of symmetry we could look for in the Lord’s plan.
- 1 Nephi 15:13 (13–20)