14 All ye, assemble yourselves, and hear; who among them hath declared these things unto them? The Lord hath loved him; yea, and he will fulfil his word which he hath declared by them; and he will do his pleasure on Babylon, and his arm shall come upon the Chaldeans.
This is a verse that is a perfect example of unclear
antecedents. In fact, it’s a rare case in which the Bible translation makes
more sense to me than what is in the Book of Mormon, simply because it leaves
one of the pronouns out that the Book of Mormon includes. The Bible also
indicates paragraphs, which in this case is very helpful. I want to break this
down phrase by phrase and give it my best attempt at interpretation.
“All ye assemble yourselves, and hear…” Since the whole
chapter is addressing Israel, I think it is safe to assume that “ye” and
“yourselves” refers to Israel. Even the way the Bible breaks up the paragraphs
(vs. 12–15 is a paragraph), the antecedent is Jacob, or Israel.
“who among them
hath declared these things unto them?” This is the most confusing phrase
to me. Ridges (see reference in verse 13) indicates that the first “them”
possibly refers to, Israel’s idols (refers to verse 5), that “these things” refer
to prophecies (“see verses 3, 6, etc.”), and that the second “them” refers to
Israel. Based on how the Bible divides the thoughts into paragraphs, however,
this interpretation doesn’t make sense to me.
At this point I don’t know if I have a better answer, but I
have a couple of ideas of what it could be. I think it might be most helpful if
I was sure of what “these things” referred to. It could be referring to what is
in verses 12 and 13 specifically, or it could be referring to how great the Lord
is, as described in the whole chapter. I think that in context of everything
else being said, we must be talking about the prophets who have been speaking
in behalf of the Lord, and their prophecies have been fulfilled. Prophets are
generally called from among the congregations of the Lord. So, it seems
reasonable that both “thems” would refer to the Israelites. So if I were to
rewrite that phrase, it might be, “who among the people hath declared these
prophecies to you, the people?” The confusing thing is the switching between talking
directly to Israel, using pronouns like “you” and “ye,” and then using “them”
as if he is talking about somebody else. So I don’t know, but I am going with
“them” being the people from whom prophets are called.
That being the case, “the Lord hath loved him,” would refer to the one among the
congregation that stepped up and declared the prophecies, or in other words,
the prophet(s). Then, “he (the Lord) will fulfill his (the Lord’s) word which
he hath declared by them (the prophets), and he (the Lord) will do his (the
Lord’s) pleasure on Babylon (which could be the actual Babylonians, or the
sinful in general), and his arm (the Lord’s arm) shall come upon (punish) the
Chaldeans.”
I think that even if I don’t have the details of which
pronoun refers to what antecedent, the general intent seems clear: that the
Lord is in charge, and he speaks his will through his prophets.